Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin
Last Answer : C. Clindamycin
Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against: A. Bateroides fragilis B. Treponema pallidum C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci
Last Answer : a
Description : Impetigo is a skin disease caused by a. a species of Haemophilus. b. a species of Chlamydia. c. Bacteroides fragilis. d. Staphylococcus aureus.
Last Answer : d. Staphylococcus aureus.
Description : Vitamin K is necessary for the species a. Lactobacillus spp. b. Bacillus anthracis c. Bacteroides melaninogenicus d. All of these
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin
Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organisms except: A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus B. Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus C. Penicillinase producing N.gonorrhoeae D. β-lactamase producing E.coli
Last Answer : A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus
Description : A 67-year-old male presents with an intraabdominal abscess secondary to perforated sigmoid diverticulitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his intraabdominal abscess. a. Culture will ... gram-negative enteric bacilli d. The most common anaerobic islet will be a Bacteroides species
Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Typically an intraabdominal infection results in perforation of a hollow viscus and the ensuing contamination of a normally sterile peritoneal cavity. The normal ... Bacteroides species (especially B. fragilis, Clostridium), and anaerobic cocci are most consistently isolated
Description : The bacteria which is predominant flora of the human gut is A- Escherichia coli B- Clostridium perfringens C- Bacteroides D- Actinomyces
Last Answer : Clostridium perfringens
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against (a) Bateroides fragilis (b) Treponema pallidum (c) Streptococci (d) Staphylococci
Description : Causative agent for necrotic enteritis is C A. E. coli B. Streptococcus spp. C. Clostridium perfringens D. None of the these
Last Answer : . Clostridium perfringens
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin
Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin
Description : Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti
Last Answer : B. Syphilis
Description : Meningitis - H. influenzae?
Last Answer : DefinitionHaemophilus influenzae meningitis is a bacterial infection of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord (meninges).See also:Aseptic meningitisMeningitisMeningitis - cryptococcalMeningitis - gram-negativeMeningitis - ... of age. Since the introduction of the vaccine in the U.S.,
Description : Acute bacterial meningitis can begin with ____ that develops into a blood infection that then invades the meninges. a. N. meningitidis b. S. pneumoniae c. H. influenzae d. A-C are correct
Last Answer : d. A-C are correct
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months
Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid
Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin
Last Answer : D. Nitrofurantoin
Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin
Last Answer : B. Vancomycin
Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico
Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin
Last Answer : A. Doxycycline
Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above
Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone
Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin
Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance
Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline
Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin
Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system
Last Answer : B. Kidney
Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin
Description : The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Phenytoin
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Antimicrobial treatment does not alter the course of the following diarrhoeas except: A. Mild enterotoxigenic E.coli diarrhoea B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Coeliac disease diarrhoea D. Food poisoning diarrhoea
Last Answer : B. Campylobacter diarrhoea
Description : The electrolyte composition of standard WHO oral rehydration solution is based upon that of: A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli diarrhoea stools B. Cholera stools in adults C. Cholera stools in children D. Rotavirus diarrhoea stools
Last Answer : C. Cholera stools in children
Description : Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because: A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice B. Its ... forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi D. All of the above
Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm
Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects
Description : As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging
Last Answer : C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestatio
Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : D. Furazolidone
Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life
Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity
Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical
Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain
Description : The following antimalarial drug is more active against pre-and exoerythrocytic stages of the malarial parasite than against the erythrocytic stage: A. Proguanil B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine D. Halofantrine
Last Answer : B. Primaquine
Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine
Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria
Description : n addition to malarial parasite, chloroquine is active against: A. Microfilariae B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Dermatophytes
Last Answer : C. Entamoeba histolytica
Description : If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative
Last Answer : B. Causal prophylactic
Description : Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz
Last Answer : A. Lamivudine
Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis
Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex
Description : In addition to fungi, amphotericin B is active against the following pathogen: A. Anaerobic bacteria B. Giardia C. Leishmania D. Rickettsiae
Last Answer : C. Leishmania