Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB
Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB
Description : The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach: a. 2400m b. 2500m c. 2600m d. 2700
Last Answer : a. 2400m
Description : What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach? a. No minimum b. 50m c. 75m d. 100m
Last Answer : a. No minimum
Description : What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? a. 1500m b. 1600m c. 2400m d. 3600m
Last Answer : a. 1500m
Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
Last Answer : b. increased
Description : Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed
Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome
Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency
Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water
Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first
Description : On an ILS approach, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the approach? a. Start of the glide-slope descent b. FAF c. Inner marker d. Outer marker
Last Answer : d. Outer marker
Description : The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate: a. On take-off b. At TOC c. At TOD d. On final approach
Last Answer : c. At TOD
Description : The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is: a. White, blue, amber b. Blue, white, amber c. Blue, amber, white d. Amber, blue, white
Last Answer : c. Blue, amber, white
Description : How do misty/foggy conditions affect the pilot's judgment on the approach? a. Underestimating range due to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass b. Underestimating range due to the ... to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
Last Answer : d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: a. APPROACH b. CENTRE c. INFORMATION d. RADIO
Last Answer : a. APPROACH
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there? a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 6
Last Answer : b. 5
Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
Description : What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate
Last Answer : d. Decreased sink rate
Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
Last Answer : c. 5
Description : Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Last Answer : b. 2
Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days
Last Answer : d. 60 days
Description : One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an ... for aerodrome use d. arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Last Answer : c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Last Answer : b. FL140
Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling
Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption
Description : The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD
Last Answer : d. 118.7 X-CD
Description : What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290? a. 500ft b. 1000ft c. 2000ft d. 4000ft
Last Answer : c. 2000ft
Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m
Last Answer : b. 1500m
Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)
Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)
Description : The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20kts minimum is: a. 3 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes
Last Answer : c. 5 minutes
Description : Which is greater 5/200ft and 145in or 1mi and 40in?
Last Answer : 234
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body
Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting
Description : A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: a. Twin DME b. VOR/DME c. Twin VOR d. Any of the above
Last Answer : b. VOR/DME
Description : Which of the following is a primary radar system? a. SSR b. DME c. GPS d. AWR
Last Answer : d. AWR
Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure
Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure
Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft
Last Answer : b. 10,000ft
Description : The purpose of an accumulator is to: a. Relieve excess pressure b. Store fluid under pressure c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation d. Remove air from the system
Last Answer : b. Store fluid under pressure
Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : With air in the hydraulic system, you would: a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it b. Bleed the air out of the system c. Allow the accumulator to auto
Last Answer : b. Bleed the air out of the system
Description : At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes
Last Answer : a. Inoperative
Description : A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to ... freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised
Last Answer : b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position
Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve
Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ON': a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever ... is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on
Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture
Description : “The Doing Business Report” is prepared by which of the following organizations every year? A. Asian Development Bank(ADB) B. World Bank(WB) C. New Development Bank(NDB) D. World Trade Organization(WTO)
Last Answer : B. World Bank(WB) Explanation: The Doing Business Report (DB) is a study elaborated by the World Bank Group since 2003 every year that is aimed to measure the costs to firms of ... sector development, and is claimed to have motivated the design of several regulatory reforms in developing countries.