What's the worst injury you ever sustained?

What's the worst injury you ever sustained?
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1 Answer

Answer :

A broken jaw once.
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Related questions

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

Description : An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease ... d) rectovaginal fistula. A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.

Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide. b- Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp. c- Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.

Description : An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... - Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.

Last Answer : a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide

A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered? A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

Description : A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered? A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

Last Answer : D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? M07*********** A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide (Cvek pulpotomy, apexogenesis) B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification

Description : 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification

Last Answer : A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide (Cvek pulpotomy, apexogenesis)

What is the worst injury you've ever suffered & how did it happen?

Description : What is the worst injury you've ever suffered & how did it happen?

Last Answer : I haven’t broken anything, yet. Lucky, I guess. >

What's the worst injury you've suffered?

Description : What's the worst injury you've suffered?

Last Answer : I got a nail rammed into the back of my foot, it missed my akilies tendon by a couple of millimeters. My friends and i had a go kart, just a push one, when I was younger. There was a nail sticking out ... i was hit by a car. I broke 8 of my toes, got whiplash and put my teeth through my bottom lip.

What’s the worst injury you’ve had?

Description : What’s the worst injury you’ve had?

Last Answer : I have gel nails (long length, coffin-shaped), and there was at one point I broke one. It took the whole fake and actual nail off; that was hell.

Do little bits of exercise add up in a meaningful way, or is sustained exercise the only kind that matters to your body?

Description : Do little bits of exercise add up in a meaningful way, or is sustained exercise the only kind that matters to your body?

Last Answer : By all means keep at it. One of the many benefits of doing a small bit of exercise is that your body will get used to it. If you are now able to walk four steps in a month you ... to what it can and can't handle in due time. http://www.primusweb.com/fitnesspartner/library/activity/gf_guide1.htm

Increase in the excitability of nerves and muscles leading to sustained contraction of the muscles of laryx, face, hand and feet is due to

Description : Increase in the excitability of nerves and muscles leading to sustained contraction of the muscles of laryx, face, hand and feet is due to

Last Answer : Increase in the excitability of nerves and muscles leading to sustained contraction of the ... Hypoactivity of thyroid D. Hypoactivit of parathyroid

My husband sustained serious side-effects from a doctors negligence, what is a good medical malpractice firm in San Diego?

Description : My husband sustained serious side-effects from a doctors negligence, what is a good medical malpractice firm in San Diego?

Last Answer : Attorney Dr. Bruce G. Fagel is one of the best malpractice lawyers in San Diego. You can call to set up an appointment at (800) 541-9376.

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

The most consistent, pronounced and sustained relief of symptoms in chronic bronchial asthma is afforded by (a) ß2 sympathomimetics (b) Anticholinergics (c) Sodium cromoglycate (d) Corticosteroids

Description : The most consistent, pronounced and sustained relief of symptoms in chronic bronchial asthma is afforded by (a) ß2 sympathomimetics (b) Anticholinergics (c) Sodium cromoglycate (d) Corticosteroids

Last Answer : Ans: D

An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is (a) Fewer allergic reactions (b) Prompter action (c) More sustained action (d) Greater solubility (e) There is no advantage

Description : An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is (a) Fewer allergic reactions (b) Prompter action (c) More sustained action (d) Greater solubility (e) There is no advantage

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one among the following is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model? (1) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns (2) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s (3) Regular elections in the centre and states since 1950s (4) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure

Description : Which one among the following is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model? (1) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns (2) Sustained economic growth specially after the ... the centre and states since 1950s (4) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure

Last Answer : (2) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s Explanation: Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s, is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model.

A circuit breaker for a 300 KW alternator is rated at 470 amperes of full continuous load. The amount of overcurrent allowed is 125%. Which of the following conditions will trip the breaker? A. Sustained current flow of 470 amperes. B. Sustained current flow of 500 amperes for 10 minutes. C. Momentary starting load of 550 amperes. D. Sustained current flow of 590 amperes.

Description : A circuit breaker for a 300 KW alternator is rated at 470 amperes of full continuous load. The amount of overcurrent allowed is 125%. Which of the following conditions will trip the breaker? A. ... 10 minutes. C. Momentary starting load of 550 amperes. D. Sustained current flow of 590 amperes.

Last Answer : Answer: D

In addition to short circuits and sustained overloads, fuses are likely to blow due to _____________. A. loose fuse clips B. low ambient temperatures C. low contact resistance D. all of the above

Description : In addition to short circuits and sustained overloads, fuses are likely to blow due to _____________. A. loose fuse clips B. low ambient temperatures C. low contact resistance D. all of the above

Last Answer : Answer: A

Fuses placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker are used for _____________. A. time-delay protection B. short-circuit protection C. short duration surge protection D. sustained overload protection

Description : Fuses placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker are used for _____________. A. time-delay protection B. short-circuit protection C. short duration surge protection D. sustained overload protection

Last Answer : Answer: B

Which two components, shown in the illustration, acting together will disconnect the motor from the line in case of a sustained motor overload? EL-0080 A. 'G' and 'H' B. 'E' and 'I' C. 'F' and 'H' D. 'E' and 'G'

Description : Which two components, shown in the illustration, acting together will disconnect the motor from the line in case of a sustained motor overload? EL-0080 A. 'G' and 'H' B. 'E' and 'I' C. 'F' and 'H' D. 'E' and 'G'

Last Answer : Answer: B

Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers is provided by a/an __________. A. overvoltage release B. thermal acting trip C. thermal overload relay D. current overload relay

Description : Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers is provided by a/an __________. A. overvoltage release B. thermal acting trip C. thermal overload relay D. current overload relay

Last Answer : Answer: B

Different degrees of power are sustained and perpetuated through social stratification like a. Gender. b. Class. c. Caste. d. All of the above.

Description : Different degrees of power are sustained and perpetuated through social stratification like a. Gender. b. Class. c. Caste. d. All of the above.

Last Answer : d. All of the above.

Right to Information Act 2005 was the result of the sustained efforts of (a) Aruna Roy (b) Anna Hazare (c) Vandana Shiva (d) MedhaPatekar

Description : Right to Information Act 2005 was the result of the sustained efforts of (a) Aruna Roy (b) Anna Hazare (c) Vandana Shiva (d) MedhaPatekar

Last Answer : (a) Aruna Roy

Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as (a) tetanus (b) tonus (c) spasm (d) fatigue.

Description : Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as (a) tetanus (b) tonus (c) spasm (d) fatigue.

Last Answer : (a) tetanus

One of the key objectives for Security initiatives in the cloud should be subject to measurements that gauge effectiveness in mitigating risk to the enterprise a) Effective Use of Resources b) Sustained Performance c) Risk Mitigation d) Strategic Alignment

Description : One of the key objectives for Security initiatives in the cloud should be subject to measurements that gauge effectiveness in mitigating risk to the enterprise a) Effective Use of Resources b) Sustained Performance c) Risk Mitigation d) Strategic Alignment

Last Answer : Risk Mitigation

“Enterprises should mandate that security investments, services, and projects in the cloud are executed to achieve established business goals” is a key objective of _____________ a) Strategic Alignment b) Value Delivery c) Risk Mitigation d) Sustained Performance

Description : “Enterprises should mandate that security investments, services, and projects in the cloud are executed to achieve established business goals” is a key objective of _____________ a) Strategic Alignment b) Value Delivery c) Risk Mitigation d) Sustained Performance

Last Answer : Strategic Alignment

__________ stress cannot be sustained by a fluid in equilibrium. (A) Shear (B) Tensile (C) Compressive

Description : __________ stress cannot be sustained by a fluid in equilibrium. (A) Shear (B) Tensile (C) Compressive

Last Answer : Option A

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Description : Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) ... , 70 Pressure of 120 systolic and 70 diastolic falls within the normal range for an adult.

Last Answer : a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

Pick up the correct statement from the following: (A) The bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the load which can be sustained by the pile without producing excessive settlement (B) The safe bearing capacity of a pile is obtained by dividing the ultimate bearing capacity with a suitable factor of safety (C) The factor of safety for piles is taken as 6 (D) All the above

Description : Pick up the correct statement from the following: (A) The bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the load which can be sustained by the pile without producing excessive settlement (B) The safe bearing capacity ... of safety (C) The factor of safety for piles is taken as 6 (D) All the above

Last Answer : Answer: Option D

What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained?  A. Burn temperature  B. Kindle temperature  C. Spark temperature  D. Ignition temperature

Description : What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained?  A. Burn temperature  B. Kindle temperature  C. Spark temperature  D. Ignition temperature

Last Answer : Ignition temperature

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg

Description : It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg

Last Answer : (B) 300 mg

What is the formulae to calculate sustained stress?

Description : What is the formulae to calculate sustained stress?

Last Answer : Sl = (F axial/ Area) + (Sb2+4St2)1/2

-yr old sustained trauma to the chest present with severe short of breath with cyanosis, his rt lung is silent with hyperresonance. The FIRST step to treat this pt: a. O2 mask b. Tube thoracostomy c. CXR _______________

Description : -yr old sustained trauma to the chest present with severe short of breath with cyanosis, his rt lung is silent with hyperresonance. The FIRST step to treat this pt: a. O2 mask b. Tube thoracostomy c. CXR _______________

Last Answer : a. O2 mask

Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Description : Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Last Answer : B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Description : Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Last Answer : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : 16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Description : Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible ... and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Last Answer : A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

What are NDDS? Differentiate between sustained and controlled release dosage forms.

Description : What are NDDS? Differentiate between sustained and controlled release dosage forms.

Last Answer : NDDS:  New drug delivery system delivers or aimed at maximizing the drug effectiveness or minimizing the side effects. Some of the Novel dosage forms are: 1) Implants 2) Controlled drug delivery system 3) ... drug. 6 e.g. sustain release tables. e.g. Transdermal patches. 

What's the stupidest injury you've ever had?

Description : What's the stupidest injury you've ever had?

Last Answer : I don't have counter space in my bathroom, but when I get all dolled up (or have more time to get ready than usual) I use all sorts of heat appliances on my hair. I set them in the sink or on the ... iron with the arch of my foot. OWCH!!! I was limping around for a while. I felt like Michael Scott.

What's the most embarrassing injury you've ever had?

Description : What's the most embarrassing injury you've ever had?

Last Answer : i ran into a fence with little bits of wire sticking out. i was playing british bulldog and last one to the fecne was the bulldog. the funny thing is is that it was totally by accident. i can remember every single detail. there was something involving carrots too. i dont know why.

Doctors/Nurses of , what's the craziest excuse you've ever heard from a patient to cover for an injury or illness?

Description : Doctors/Nurses of , what's the craziest excuse you've ever heard from a patient to cover for an injury or illness?

Last Answer : Need Answer