Tranexaemic acid is a specific antidote of: A. Fibrinolytic drugs B. Organophosphates C. Barbitur

Tranexaemic acid is a specific antidote of:
A. Fibrinolytic drugs
B. Organophosphates
C. Barbitur
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Fibrinolytic drugs
by

Related questions

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: A. Urokinase B. Streptokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C

Description : Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: A. Urokinase B. Streptokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C

Last Answer : C. Alteplase

Select the fibrinolytic drug(s) that is/are antigenic: A. Streptokinase B. Urokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Select the fibrinolytic drug(s) that is/are antigenic: A. Streptokinase B. Urokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : A. Streptokinase

The antidote of choice for morphine poisoning is: A. Nalorphine B. Nalbuphine C. Naltrexone D. Naloxone

Description : The antidote of choice for morphine poisoning is: A. Nalorphine B. Nalbuphine C. Naltrexone D. Naloxone

Last Answer : D. Naloxone

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Last Answer : B. Physostigmine

The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Last Answer : B. Physostigmine

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

First bionisecticide developed on commercial scale was: (a) Quinine (b) DDT (c) Organophosphates (d) Sporeine

Description : First bionisecticide developed on commercial scale was: (a) Quinine (b) DDT (c) Organophosphates (d) Sporeine

Last Answer : Ans. ((d))

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach

Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Description : Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

Which of the following hypolipidemic drugs is most effective in raising HDL-cholesterol level and lowers serum triglycerides: A. Nicotinic acid B. Fenofibrate C. Cholestyramine D. Pravastatin

Description : Which of the following hypolipidemic drugs is most effective in raising HDL-cholesterol level and lowers serum triglycerides: A. Nicotinic acid B. Fenofibrate C. Cholestyramine D. Pravastatin

Last Answer : A. Nicotinic acid

Antiatherosclerotic effect of which class of hypolipidemic drugs may involve additional mechanisms like improved endothelial function, reduced LDL oxidation and antiinflammatory property: A. Bile acid sequestrant resins B. Statins C. Fibrates D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Antiatherosclerotic effect of which class of hypolipidemic drugs may involve additional mechanisms like improved endothelial function, reduced LDL oxidation and antiinflammatory property: A. Bile acid sequestrant resins B. Statins C. Fibrates D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : B. Statins

A patient has an episode of hematemesis following streptokinase infused for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in controlling the bleeding episode: A. Vitamin K B. Noradrenaline C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid D. Rutin

Description : A patient has an episode of hematemesis following streptokinase infused for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in controlling the bleeding episode: A. Vitamin K B. Noradrenaline C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid D. Rutin

Last Answer : C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid

Risk of neural tube defect in the offspring can be minimised in pregnant women receiving antiepileptic drugs by supplemental therapy with: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E D. Pyridoxine

Description : Risk of neural tube defect in the offspring can be minimised in pregnant women receiving antiepileptic drugs by supplemental therapy with: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : B. Vitamin A

Weakly acidic drugs: A. Are bound primarily to α1 acid glycoprotein in plasma B. Are excreted faster in alkaline urine C. Are highly ionized in the gastric juice D. Do not cross blood-brain barrier

Description : Weakly acidic drugs: A. Are bound primarily to α1 acid glycoprotein in plasma B. Are excreted faster in alkaline urine C. Are highly ionized in the gastric juice D. Do not cross blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : B. Are excreted faster in alkaline urine

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results in selective thrombolysis at the fibrin clot surface. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning agents used in thrombolytic therapy? a. Streptokinase is a bacterial protein which is antigenic in humans, resulting in allergic reactions in up to l5% of cases b. Tissue plasminogen activator acts directly on plasmin without an intermediate drug–plasmin complex c. The half-life of urokinase, streptokinase, and TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

Description : Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results ... TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Streptokinase is a bacterial protein produced by group C b-hemolytic streptococci. It is therefore antigenic in humans and can be associated with allergic reaction in ... one agent over the other. Streptokinase however, is markedly less expensive than either urokinase or TPA

Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated to decrease the risk of systemic bleeding. Which of the following true statement(s) concerning the use of thrombolytic agents for arterial occlusion is/are true? a. A standard technique involves infusing high-dose urokinase, 4000 units per minute for 1–2 hours, directly into the clot by a catheter embedded in the thrombus b. If progress is made, further fibrinolytic therapy is given at 1000 to 2000 units per minute until clot lysis has occurred c. The usual infusion time by the above-stated technique is usually in excess of 24 hours d. Successful clot lysis occurs more frequently in arterial graf

Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency

If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Last Answer : Ans: D

Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to the drug C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of cancers is higher than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Description : The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of ... than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Description : Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Description : Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Last Answer : D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Description : Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following are topical antifungal drugs except: A. Ciclopirox olamine B. Tolnaftate C. Crotamiton D. Terbinafine

Description : The following are topical antifungal drugs except: A. Ciclopirox olamine B. Tolnaftate C. Crotamiton D. Terbinafine

Last Answer : C. Crotamiton

The following drugs are effective in systemic mycosis except: A. Terbinafine B. Itraconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Fluconazol

Description : The following drugs are effective in systemic mycosis except: A. Terbinafine B. Itraconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Fluconazol

Last Answer : A. Terbinafine

The most probable mechanism of action of imidazole antifungal drugs is: A. They bind to ergosterol in fungal cell membrane and make it leaky B. They interfere with ergosterol synthesis by fungi C. They interfere with fungal mitosis D. They block oxidative phosphorylation in fungi

Description : The most probable mechanism of action of imidazole antifungal drugs is: A. They bind to ergosterol in fungal cell membrane and make it leaky B. They interfere with ergosterol synthesis by fungi C. They interfere with fungal mitosis D. They block oxidative phosphorylation in fungi

Last Answer : B. They interfere with ergosterol synthesis by fungi

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : D. Ethambutol

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression

Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease: A. Granuloma inguinale B. Chancroid C. Syphilis D. Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Description : ]Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease: A. Granuloma inguinale B. Chancroid C. Syphilis D. Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Last Answer : A. Granuloma inguinale